Microsoft

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION 35
Your EC2-Based Multi-tier application includes a monitoring instance that periodically makes application – level read only requests of various application components and if any of those fail more than three times 30 seconds calls CloudWatch lo fire an alarm, and the alarm notifies your operations team by email and SMS of a possible application health problem. However, you also need to watch the watcher -the monitoring instance itself – and be notified if it becomes un- healthy. Which of the following Is a simple way to achieve that goal?
A. Run another monitoring instance that pings the monitoring instance and fires a could watch alarm mat notifies your operations teamshould the primary monitoring instance become un- healthy.
B. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on EC2 system and instance status checks and have the alarm notify your operations team of anydetected problem with the monitoring instance.
C. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on the CPU utilization of the monitoring instance and nave the alarm notify your operations team if C r the CPU usage exceeds 50% few more than one minute: then have your monitoring application go into a CPU-bound loop should itDetect any ap- plication problems.
D. Have the monitoring instances post messages to an SOS queue and then dequeue those mes- sages on another instance should D c- the queue cease to have new messages, the second in- stance should first terminate the original monitoring instance start anotherbackup monitoring in- stance and assume (he role of the previous monitoring instance and beginning adding messages to the SOSqueue.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 36
You have decided to change the Instance type for instances running In your application tier that are using Auto Scaling.
In which area below would you change the instance type definition?
A. Auto Scaling launch configuration
B. Auto Scaling group
C. Auto Scaling policy
D. Auto Scaling tags
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 37
You are attempting to connect to an instance in Amazon VPC without success You have already verified that the VPC has an Internet Gateway (IGW) the instance has an associated Elastic IP (EIP) and correct security group rules are in place.
Which VPC component should you evaluate next?
A. The configuration of a MAT instance
B. The configuration of the Routing Table

C. The configuration of the internet Gateway (IGW)
D. The configuration of SRC’DST checking
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 38
You are tasked with the migration of a highly trafficked Node JS application to AWS In order to comply with organizational standards Chef recipes must be used to configure the application servers that host this application and to support application lifecycle events. Which deployment option meets these requirements while minimizing administrative burden?
A. Create a new stack within Opsworks add the appropriate layers to the stack and deploy the ap
plication
B. Create a new application within Elastic Beanstalk and deploy this application to a new envi- ronment
C. Launch a Mode JS server from a community AMI and manually deploy the application to the launched EC2 instance
D. Launch and configure Chef Server on an EC2 instance and leverage the AWS CLI to launch
application servers and configure those instances using Chef.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 39
You have been asked to automate many routine systems administrator backup and recovery ac- tivities Your current plan is to leverage AWS-managed solutions as much as possible and auto- mate the rest with the AWS CU and scripts. Which task would be best accomplished with a script?
A. Creating daily EBS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
B. Creating daily ROS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
C. Automatically detect and stop unused or underutilized EC2 instances
D. Automatically add Auto Scaled EC2 instances to an Amazon Elastic Load Balancer
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Your organization’s security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password. Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? Choose 2 answers
A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
B. Create 1AM users for privileged accounts
C. Implement identity federation between your organization’s Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
D. Enable the 1AM single-use password policy option for privileged users

Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 41
What are characteristics of Amazon S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL
B. S3 should be used to host a relational database
C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size
D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data
E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS
70-698 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 20, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 33 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data from all files that are automatically copied to a directory each night through an external FTP process. You need to load data from all copied files to a destination table in SQL Server. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate 70-463 exam actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

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Question No : 34 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
from a relational database to a data warehouse. You are importing data from a relational table named Projects. The table has change data capture enabled on all columns. You need to process only the most recent values from rows that have been inserted or updated since the previous execution of the package. Which query should you use as the data source?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

Question No : 35 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a
data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel
processing.Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
1. DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
C.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
D.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
E.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: References:

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to
a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements:
An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes.
You need to meet the company’s policy requirements.
Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1) You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three
Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back
their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
70-463 pdf Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to
the correct location in the answer area.)

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Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both 70-463 vce packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)70-463 dumps
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1) You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a
Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
Question No : 41 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model. The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012. The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string. A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package. The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter. The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs 70-463 exam SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter. You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package. Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management
Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

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Question No : 42 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow. The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements: The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar. The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Answer: D
Explanation: References:
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load product data sourced from a SQL Azure database to a data warehouse. Before the product data is loaded, you create a batch record by using an Execute SQL task named Create Batch. After successfully loading the product data, you use another Execute SQL task named Set Batch Success to mark the batch as successful.
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You need to create and execute an Execute SQL task to mark the batch as failed if either
the Create Batch or Load Products task fails. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

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70-463 pdf Answer:
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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Sep 16, 2017
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton
app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
70-534 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of 70-534 dumps data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in
each column.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it
for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION NO: 5
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
70-534 pdf 
Answer: B,D,E
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list
of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of the files
specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in both its
semantics and execution.

Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
QUESTION NO: 6
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing
the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an
active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation uses
multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that is, the
Namenodes are independent and don’t require 70-534 vce coordination with each other. The datanodes are
used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode registers with all the
Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and block reports and handles
commands from the Namenodes.Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
QUESTION NO: 7
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster’s block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
70-534 exam 
Answer: D
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block
size?In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each block is
typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is toreplicate each
block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes the local file system to
store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not be compared with the
traditional file system block size.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks (Map,
Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker process run
on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every TaskTracker is
configured with a set ofslots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can accept. The
TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as Task Instance) this
is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker. The TaskTracker monitors
these task instances, capturing the output and exit 70-534 dumps codes. When the Task instances finish,
successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The TaskTrackers also send out
heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to reassure the JobTracker
thatit is still alive. Thesemessage also inform the JobTracker of the number of available slots, so
the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Masternodes NameNode – This daemon stores and maintains the
metadata for HDFS.
 Secondary NameNode – Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker – Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running the Task
Tracker. Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker – Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster.

QUESTION NO: 9
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single NameNode
and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that it affects all six
DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don’t need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
70-534 pdf Answer: A,F
Note:Typically one machine in the cluster is designated as the NameNode and
another machine the as JobTracker, exclusively. These are the masters. The rest ofthe machines
in the cluster actas both DataNode and TaskTracker. These are the slaves.

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 36

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QUESTION NO: 1
The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
70-398 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
70-398 dumps 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4

When a notification isn’t received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of applications
related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which two
of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
70-398 vce 
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
70-398 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10

The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
The Policy Management solution enables companies to implement a workflow process that will
ensure exceptions to policies are properly documented and reviewed. What is the name of the
application that includes this process?
A. Policies
B. Question Library
C. Control Procedures
D. Exception Requests
70-398 dumps 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
The Risk Management solution easily interacts with which other RSA Archer solutions, out of the
box?
A. Enterprise, Policy, Vendor
B. Audit, Compliance, Threat
C. Enterprise, Incident, Vendor
D. Compliance, Enterprise, Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
The Threat Management solution is primarily used in conjunction with what other RSA Archer
administrative feature?
A. Data Feed Manager
B. Data Import Manager
C. Management Reporting
D. Business Processes Application
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
In the Vendor Management solution, how is the vendor tier determined?
A. The vendor relationship manager is able to manually type in the vendor tier.
B. The vendor tier is pulled from an external database maintained by a third party.
C. A representative from each vendor company can enter a tier through an external site.
D. The answers to business impact, financial viability, and privacy analyses are combined to
automatically calculate a vendor tier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Within RSA Archer, data is stored in the following nested sequence of items:
A. Solution > Application > Record > Field
B. Workspace > Dashboard > iView > Report
C. Access role > Group > User Account > User
D. User Account > Workspace > Solution > Application
70-398 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16

If an administrator wanted to edit a field in an application, which module should she access on the
Administration tab?
A. Integration
B. Access Control
C. Application Builder
D. Management Reporting
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
What is the name of the feature that allows administrators to merge application configuration
changes between instances?
A. Packaging
B. Integration
C. Data Import
D. Data Feed Manager
70-398 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Where would an administrator find licensing information for the RSA Archer system?
A. Preferences page
B. Manage Applications
C. Reports Master Listing
D. Management Reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19

Which one of the following statements about key fields in RSA Archer is true?
A. Key fields must be unique.
B. Any field can be configured to be a key field.
C. Applications can have an unlimited number of key fields.
D. Key fields are displayed as a hyperlink to the record within search results.
70-398 dumps 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
How does an administrator configure a field to appear on the layout of a form for end users?
A. He assigns the end user a role that grants Read rights to the field.
B. He ensures the field’s access is configured to be visible to specific end users.
C. He configures an Appearance Theme that includes the field to appear on the layout.
D. He drags the field onto the layout on the Layout page in Manage Applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Events can be used to trigger a number of different layout effects, based on a user’s interaction
with other fields in the application. Which of the following actions CANNOT be triggered by an
Event?
A. Delete a record
B. Generate an email notification
C. Make a field conditionally required
D. Populate a values list with a selected value
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22

When will a calculated field’s value be recalculated?
A. When a report is run
B. When a record is opened
C. When a record is saved, assuming fields affecting the calculation have been edited
D. When a user logs into the system, assuming the user has access to the application housing the
calculation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
When a new questionnaire is created, the administrator can pull questions stored in which of the
following RSA Archer applications to be used in the questionnaire?
A. Findings
B. Question Library
C. Authoritative Sources
D. Manage Questionnaires
70-398 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Users can be granted access to information at what three levels? (Choose three)
A. Form
B. Page
C. Field
D. Record
E. Application
F. Workspace
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 102

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-774 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You take a EUR deposit on Monday, 13 February. Assuming there are no intervening bank holidays, what
is the one-month maturity date?
A. Monday, 13 March
B. Tuesday, 14 March
C. Wednesday, 15 March
D. Thursday, 16 March
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
A broker:
A. Is an agent who mediates between buyers and sellers, for their mutual financial interest
B. Controls country limits in cooperation with the compliance officer
C. Is responsible for reducing transaction fees
D. Acts as a correspondent bank
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What does “modified following business day convention” mean?
A. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What does ISDA stand for?
A. International Swaps and Derivatives Association
B. Integrated System Data Association
C. International Swap Derivatives Agreement
D. International Swaps Dealer Association
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is volatility?
A. The difference between the current price of an asset and its previous close
B. A statistical measure of price fluctuations as an annualized percentage
C. The measure of the liquidity of a contract or security
D. The difference between the annual high and low of a security
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which SWIFT message formats would you use for a foreign exchange confirmation and fixed money
market confirmation, respectively?

A. MT 400, MT 950
B. MT 200, MT 100
C. MT 300, MT 950
D. MT 300, MT 320
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
When do you use a SWIFT message type 202?
A. For a foreign exchange confirmation
B. For multiple general financial institution transfers
C. For a general financial institution transfer
D. For a customer transfer
70-774 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In the unexpected event that a public holiday is declared on the date a particular contract matures, what is
the normal market practice?
A. If that day is not the final trading day of the month, all contracts maturing on that day are extended to
the next business day
B. If that day is not the final trading day of the month, all contracts maturing on that day are shortened to
the preceding business day
C. All new maturity dates have to be agreed upon with the counterparties involved
D. Decisions about the maturity dates of trading contracts are made by ACI’s Committee for
Professionalism on a case-by-case basis and must be adhered to
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
How are accounting entries usually generated?
A. They are generated based on a code profile held for each product type on a time event basis.
B. They are generated based on a code profile held for each front office staff member.
C. They are generated based on the nature of instruments (debits = first priority / credits = second
priority).
D. They are generated in the morning at start of business when there is no direct link to other systems.
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is a SWIFT message type 210?
A. A request for financial institution transfer
B. A general financial institution transfer
C. A financial institution transfer for its own account
D. A notice to receive
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is done with counterparties’ confirmations?
A. They are scanned for money laundering activities and afterwards destroyed
B. They are forwarded to the deal capturer to check the completeness of the deal

C. They are matched as soon as possible after receipt
D. They are archived after reception
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of “internal cash reconciliation”?
A. To control the bank’s cash and derivative positions
B. To reconcile and control the cash balance for the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
C. To reconcile and control the cash balance for the central bank
D. Cash forecasting, cash collateral and cash positions control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What information is essential for an interbank FX confirmation?
A. Specification of the applicable law
B. The value date
C. The brokerage cost
D. The name of the person(s) originating the deal
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What is the most frequently used settlement process for securities?
A. Free of settlement payment
B. Cash settlement
C. Same day value settlement
D. Delivery-versus-payment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of payment demands extra diligence and review procedures?
A. Nostro funding payment
B. Third party payment
C. Value spot USD payment
D. Value spot payment for currency equivalents> USD 3,000,000.00
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following best describes TARGET2?
A. The real-time gross settlement (RTGS) system owned and operated by the Eurosystem
B. The system used in Germany for settling high value domestic securities transactions
C. The pan-Europe netting system used for reducing credit risk for derivative transactions
D. The system used by the European Banking Federation to clear cross border Euro payments
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is a settlement date?
A. The date by which the interest payment on an operation must be made
B. The last date by which the minimum reserve amount can be paid to the central bank
C. The date, on which settlement must be made on the contracted amount or the differential amount of an
operation
D. The date a deal is processed
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the main difference between TARGET and TARGET2?
A. Finland did not participate in TARGET but it does participate in TARGET2
B. The cut-off time for TARGET2 is 20:00 (8.00 p.m.) CET, whereas the cut-off time for TARGET was
18:00 (6.00 p.m.) CET
C. TARGET2 runs on a single shared technical platform whereas TARGET did not
D. TARGET2 processes payment orders denominated in EUR as well as USD
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following best describes the main benefit of the RTGS payment system?
A. Final settlement of interbank funds transfers on a continuous, trade by trade basis throughout the day
B. Lower costs through fewer payments passing through nostro accounts
C. Lower costs through less labor intensive methods
D. Reduced market risk due to smaller values of open positions
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A payment is made from Germany to a second Euro zone country. Which international payment system
would normally be used?
A. TARGET2
B. Euro Link System (ELS)
C. Euroclear
D. Clearstream
Correct Answer: A

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