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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 92
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 93
How is the process of collecting requirements defined?
A. Defining and documenting project sponsors’ needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders’ needs to meet the project objectives
C. Defining and documenting the project teams’ needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
Answer: B
QUESTION: 94
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which process group can be performed outside the project’s scope of control?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: D
QUESTION: 96
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
210-260 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 97
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: B
QUESTION: 98
Which of the following is defined by a project’s life cycle and varies by application area?
A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 99
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C
QUESTION: 100
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not
explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?
A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 101
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 102
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all
of the management process groups to formally complete the project?
A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 103
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the
project was undertaken to achieve?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
QUESTION: 104
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 105
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer: C
QUESTION: 106
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 107
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
Answer: D
QUESTION: 108
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 109
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
QUESTION: 110
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how
the project’s scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 111
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A. Approved corrective actions
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Answer: A
QUESTION: 112
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 113
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 114
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 115
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 116
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 117
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of
the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 118
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION 35
Your EC2-Based Multi-tier application includes a monitoring instance that periodically makes application – level read only requests of various application components and if any of those fail more than three times 30 seconds calls CloudWatch lo fire an alarm, and the alarm notifies your operations team by email and SMS of a possible application health problem. However, you also need to watch the watcher -the monitoring instance itself – and be notified if it becomes un- healthy. Which of the following Is a simple way to achieve that goal?
A. Run another monitoring instance that pings the monitoring instance and fires a could watch alarm mat notifies your operations teamshould the primary monitoring instance become un- healthy.
B. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on EC2 system and instance status checks and have the alarm notify your operations team of anydetected problem with the monitoring instance.
C. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on the CPU utilization of the monitoring instance and nave the alarm notify your operations team if C r the CPU usage exceeds 50% few more than one minute: then have your monitoring application go into a CPU-bound loop should itDetect any ap- plication problems.
D. Have the monitoring instances post messages to an SOS queue and then dequeue those mes- sages on another instance should D c- the queue cease to have new messages, the second in- stance should first terminate the original monitoring instance start anotherbackup monitoring in- stance and assume (he role of the previous monitoring instance and beginning adding messages to the SOSqueue.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 36
You have decided to change the Instance type for instances running In your application tier that are using Auto Scaling.
In which area below would you change the instance type definition?
A. Auto Scaling launch configuration
B. Auto Scaling group
C. Auto Scaling policy
D. Auto Scaling tags
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 37
You are attempting to connect to an instance in Amazon VPC without success You have already verified that the VPC has an Internet Gateway (IGW) the instance has an associated Elastic IP (EIP) and correct security group rules are in place.
Which VPC component should you evaluate next?
A. The configuration of a MAT instance
B. The configuration of the Routing Table
C. The configuration of the internet Gateway (IGW)
D. The configuration of SRC’DST checking
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 38
You are tasked with the migration of a highly trafficked Node JS application to AWS In order to comply with organizational standards Chef recipes must be used to configure the application servers that host this application and to support application lifecycle events. Which deployment option meets these requirements while minimizing administrative burden?
A. Create a new stack within Opsworks add the appropriate layers to the stack and deploy the ap
plication
B. Create a new application within Elastic Beanstalk and deploy this application to a new envi- ronment
C. Launch a Mode JS server from a community AMI and manually deploy the application to the launched EC2 instance
D. Launch and configure Chef Server on an EC2 instance and leverage the AWS CLI to launch
application servers and configure those instances using Chef.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 39
You have been asked to automate many routine systems administrator backup and recovery ac- tivities Your current plan is to leverage AWS-managed solutions as much as possible and auto- mate the rest with the AWS CU and scripts. Which task would be best accomplished with a script?
A. Creating daily EBS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
B. Creating daily ROS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
C. Automatically detect and stop unused or underutilized EC2 instances
D. Automatically add Auto Scaled EC2 instances to an Amazon Elastic Load Balancer
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Your organization’s security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password. Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? Choose 2 answers
A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
B. Create 1AM users for privileged accounts
C. Implement identity federation between your organization’s Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
D. Enable the 1AM single-use password policy option for privileged users
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 41
What are characteristics of Amazon S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL
B. S3 should be used to host a relational database
C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size
D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data
E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS
70-698 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Real Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF Exam Tests with 100% Pass Rate Youtube Study for Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 55
While configuring Blue Coat directory, what is an Overlay?
A. A few selected setting used to replace some of the configuration in ProxySG.
B. A snapshot of all the configuration in ProxySG.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
CPL is required when creating which types of policy?
A. Two-Way URL rewrites
B. Policy that utilizes layer guards
C. Policy that involves local users and groups
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements are true about Bandwidth Management Hierarchies and Priorities?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) Child classes can have children of their own.
(b) If no limit is set, packets are sent as soon as they arrive.
(c) Priorities are set to a class to give precedence over other classes.
(d) If there is excess bandwidth, the child class will always get the first opportunity to use it.
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. b, c & d only
D. All of the above
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types has the LOWEST efficiency in terms of
response time, bandwidth use and execution time on ProxySG
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Bandwidth minimum does not work in an explicit deployment model.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which authentication realm is NOT supported for authenticating administrators to the management
console?
A. IWA
B. Radius
(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
If a user can not be derived through the Window SSO realm, then the client will .
A. be prompted with an authentication dialog box to provide credentials.
B. receive an authentication error from the proxy.
C. proceed as an unauthenticated user.
D. receive an authentication form from the proxy to provide credentials.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
In which of the following ways can Access Logging be enabled? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) By a CLI command
(b) In the Management Console under Access Logging
(C) By adding another layer to VPM policy
A. a & b only
B. a & c only
C. b & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which of the following cashing techniques utilize retrieval workers to keep the contents of the cache fresh?
(Choose all that apply.)
(a) Cost-based Deletion
(b) Asynchronous Adaptive Refresh
(c) Popularity Contest
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. All of the above
D. b only
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Which server certificate validation errors can be ignored within ProxySG policy? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Untrusted issuer
(b) Host name mismatch
(c) Expiration
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
When configuring Blue Coat Director, how can an administrator be authenticated? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Log format variable rs(Content-Type) always refers to Content-type header value sent from the proxySG to
the client.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Which of the following Health Checks can be defined for a forwarding host? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ICMP
(b) TCP
(C) HTTP
(d) HTTPS
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. c & d only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is NOT true about global and per-rule policy tracing?
A. Each object processed by the ProxySG generates an entry in the global policy trace and appears in a
rule-based trace if the object triggers a rule.
B. Global policy tracing may severely affect the performance of a production ProxySG.
C. You can enable global tracing through the Management Console or CLI.
D. You can enable per-rule tracing through the Management Console.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
The ProxySG policy engine allows an administrator to create policy based on any MIME type, File
Extension or File Signature (first bytes in the response body).
A. True
B. False
300-135 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following access log formats are supported by the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ELFF
(b) SQUID
(c) Websense
(d) NCSA
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
By default, what type of authentication challenge will the user-agent receive if the authentication node is
set to AUTO?
A. proxy-ip for explicit and transparent clients
B. proxy for explicit and origin-cookie-redirect for transparent clients
C. proxy for explicit and transparent clients
D. proxy-ip for explicit and origin-ip-redirect for transparent clients
E. proxy for explicit and proxy-ip for transparent
300-135 exam Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Q&As: 216

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QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result?
A. 3 false 1
B. 2 true 3
C. 2 false 3
D. 3 true 1
E. 3 false 3
F. 2 true 1
G. 2 false 1
1Z0-803 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The length of the element with index 0, {0, 1, 2}, is 3. Output: 3 The element with index 1, {3, 4, 5, 6}, is of type array. Output: true The element with index 0, {0, 1,
2} has the element with index 1: 1. Output: 1
QUESTION 2
View the exhibit:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result when this program is executed?
A. Bob’s Name: Bob
B. Bob’s Name: Jian
C. Nothing prints
D. Bob’s name
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After the statement jian = bob; the jian will reference the same object as bob.
QUESTION 3
Given the 1Z0-803 dumps code fragment:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result?
A. Valid
B. Not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In segment ‘if (valid)’ valid must be of type boolean, but it is a string.
This makes the compilation fail.
QUESTION 4
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result?
A. 6
5
6
4
B. 6
5
5
4
C. 6
5
66
D. 6
5
6
5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Within main z is assigned 6. z is printed. Output: 6 Within doStuff z is assigned 5.DoStuff2 locally sets z to 4 (but MyScope.z is set to 4), but in Dostuff z is still 5. z
is printed. Output: 5
Again z is printed within main (with local z set to 6). Output: 6 Finally MyScope.z is printed. MyScope.z has been set to 4 within doStuff2(). Output: 4
QUESTION 5
Which two are valid instantiations and initializations of a multi dimensional array?
1Z0-803 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
1Z0-803 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the Java programming language, a multidimensional array is simply an array whose components are themselves arrays.
QUESTION 6
An unchecked exception occurs in a method dosomething() Should other code be added in the dosomething() method for it to compile and execute?
A. The Exception must be caught
B. The Exception must be declared to be thrown.
C. The Exception must be caught or declared to be thrown.
D. No other code needs to be added.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the Java programming language does not require methods to catch or to specify unchecked exceptions (RuntimeException, Error, and their subclasses),
programmers may be tempted to write code that throws only unchecked exceptions or to make all their exception subclasses inherit from RuntimeException. Both
of these shortcuts allow programmers to write code without bothering with compiler errors and without bothering to specify or to catch any exceptions. Although
this may seem convenient to the programmer, it sidesteps the intent of the catch or specify requirement and can cause problems for others using your classes.
QUESTION 7
Given the code fragment:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result?
A. 2
2
B. 1
2
C. 3
2
D. 3
3
1Z0-803 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Variable b is set to 4.
Variable b is decreased to 3.
Variable b is decreased to 2 and then printed. Output: 2 Variable b is printed. Output: 2
QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:
interface SampleClosable {
public void close () throws java.io.IOException;
}
Which three implementations are valid?
1Z0-803 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Throwing the same exception is fine.
C: Using a subclass of java.io.IOException (here java.io.FileNotFoundException) is fine
E: Not using a throw clause is fine.
Incorrect answers:
B: Exception is not a subclass of java.io.IOException and cannot be used here.
D: Not extends. SampleCloseable cannot be the superclass of Test, a superclass must be a class.
(An interface extends other interfaces.)
QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment:
Int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}}; Systemout.printIn(array [4] [1]);
System.out.printIn (array) [1] [4]);
What is the result?
A. 4
Null
B. Null
C. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
D. 4
An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundException is thrown at run time
1Z0-803 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The first println statement, System.out.println(array [4][1]);, works fine. It selects the element/array with index 4, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}, and from this array it selects the
element with index 1, 4. Output: 4
The second println statement, System.out.println(array) [1][4]);, fails. It selects the array/element with index 1, {0, 1}, and from this array it try to select the element
with index 4. This causes an exception.
Output:
Exception in thread “main” java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 4
QUESTION 10
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps

How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps

Which two actions, used independently, will permit this class to compile?
A. Adding throws IOException to the main() method signature
B. Adding throws IOException to the doSoomething() method signature
C. Adding throws IOException to the main() method signature and to the dosomething() method
D. Adding throws IOException to the dosomething() method signature and changing the catch argument to IOException
E. Adding throws IOException to the main() method signature and changing the catch argument to IOException
1Z0-803 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IOException must be caught or be declared to be thrown. We must add a throws exception to the doSomething () method signature (static void doSomething()
throws IOException).
Then we can either add the same throws IOException to the main method (public static void main (String[] args) throws IOException), or change the catch
statement in main to IOException.
QUESTION 12
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps

What is the result?
A. Hello
B. Default
C. Compilation fails
D. The program prints nothing
E. An exception is thrown at run time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The program compiles fine.
The program runs fine.
The output is: hello
QUESTION 13
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps

Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
1Z0-803 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Works fine.
Incorrect answers:
asc = sc.clone();
Incompatible types.
asc =sc;
Incompatible types.
asc = (object) sc;
Syntax error

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 20, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 33 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data from all files that are automatically copied to a directory each night through an external FTP process. You need to load data from all copied files to a destination table in SQL Server. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate 70-463 exam actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

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Question No : 34 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
from a relational database to a data warehouse. You are importing data from a relational table named Projects. The table has change data capture enabled on all columns. You need to process only the most recent values from rows that have been inserted or updated since the previous execution of the package. Which query should you use as the data source?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

Question No : 35 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a
data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel
processing.Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
1. DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
C.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
D.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
E.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: References:

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to
a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements:
An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes.You need to meet the company’s policy requirements.
Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1) You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three
Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back
their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
70-463 pdf Answer: D
Reference:
 Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to
the correct location in the answer area.)

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Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both 70-463 vce packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)70-463 dumps
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1) You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a
Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
 Question No : 41 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model. The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012. The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string. A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package. The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter. The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs 70-463 exam SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter. You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package. Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management
Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 42 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow. The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements: The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar. The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
 In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Answer: D
Explanation: References:
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load product data sourced from a SQL Azure database to a data warehouse. Before the product data is loaded, you create a batch record by using an Execute SQL task named Create Batch. After successfully loading the product data, you use another Execute SQL task named Set Batch Success to mark the batch as successful.
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You need to create and execute an Execute SQL task to mark the batch as failed if either
the Create Batch or Load Products task fails. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

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70-463 pdf Answer:
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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Sep 16, 2017
Q&As: 249

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Design Azure Resource Manager (ARM) networking (5 – 10%)

  • Design Azure virtual networks – Leverage Azure networking services: implement load balancing using Azure Load Balancer and Azure Traffic Manager; define DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration; define static IP reservations; apply Network Security Groups (NSGs) and User Defined Routes (UDRs); deploy Microsoft 70-534 Dumps Azure Application Gateway
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QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton
app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
70-534 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of 70-534 dumps data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in
each column.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it
for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION NO: 5
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
70-534 pdf Answer: B,D,E
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list
of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of the files
specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in both its
semantics and execution.
Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
QUESTION NO: 6
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing
the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an
active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation uses
multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that is, the
Namenodes are independent and don’t require 70-534 vce coordination with each other. The datanodes are
used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode registers with all the
Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and block reports and handles
commands from the Namenodes.Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
QUESTION NO: 7
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster’s block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
70-534 exam Answer: D
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block
size?In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each block is
typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is toreplicate each
block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes the local file system to
store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not be compared with the
traditional file system block size.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks (Map,
Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker process run
on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every TaskTracker is
configured with a set ofslots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can accept. The
TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as Task Instance) this
is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker. The TaskTracker monitors
these task instances, capturing the output and exit 70-534 dumps codes. When the Task instances finish,
successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The TaskTrackers also send out
heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to reassure the JobTracker
thatit is still alive. Thesemessage also inform the JobTracker of the number of available slots, so
the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Masternodes NameNode – This daemon stores and maintains the
metadata for HDFS. Secondary NameNode – Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker – Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running the Task
Tracker. Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker – Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster.

QUESTION NO: 9
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single NameNode
and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that it affects all six
DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don’t need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
70-534 pdf Answer: A,F
Note:Typically one machine in the cluster is designated as the NameNode and
another machine the as JobTracker, exclusively. These are the masters. The rest ofthe machines
in the cluster actas both DataNode and TaskTracker. These are the slaves.

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Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 85

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Question: 3 Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)
A.access control lists
B.QoS marking
C.Network vMotion
D.port state migration
E.DV Port Groups
200-155 dumps Answer: AB
Question: 4 When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A.Resource Manager
B.Workflow Designer
C.Scheduler
D.Activity Planner
E.Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE
QUESTION: 5.You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
“.snapshot” directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
200-155 exam Answer:A
QUESTION: 6.The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain “isilon.com”. You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
“cluster.isilon.com”. Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
“cluster.isilon.com” to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving “cluster.isilon.com” to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A
QUESTION: 7 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A.”isi status”
B.”isi config”
C.”restripe status”
D.”isi restripe”
200-155 dumps Answer:A D
QUESTION: 8
PRPC best practices dictate that when the number of covered objects under a
work cover exceeds a certain number, a folder should be considered to manage
this collection. What is the number?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 50
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Which types of relationships can a work cover and its covered items have?
(Choose two.)
A. One-to-One
B. One-to-Many
C. Many-to-One
D. Many-to-Many
200-155 pdf Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 10
Split-Join shapes are used to split a single work object into multiple work objects
and execute parallel flows on each new work object.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Application guardrails recommend that developers.
A. Create Java steps in Activities
B. Adopt an interactive approach
C. Calculate and edit procedurally
D. Design intent-driven processes
E. Build for Change(r)
200-155 vce Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION: 12
Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A local list is defined for a property. Which HTML property rule is used to create
a selection list for this property.
A. PromptFieldValueLocalized
B. GetLocalizedValue
C. PromptSelect
D. SmartPrompt
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript?
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
 Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Review the following clipboard page.
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the best
practice way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims
page?
A. PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
Review the following screen shot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several items (name/value
pairs). Which type of property is used to display the list of items?
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
Answer: B
QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements must be true when defining classes from which
data pages are created?
A. The class must derive from the Data- class
B. The class cannot belong to a RuleSet that also contains work classes
C. The class must be abstract
D. The class must contain a single value property that defines a unique key
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 18
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding the use of the Quick
Create option when adding a new property? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to create Page and Page List properties as well as Single Value
properties
B. The Property cannot be subsequently updated
C. The Property type must be chosen when completing the New Property window
D. After clicking Quick Create, the Property form does not appear
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 19
Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a
common Applies To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
Page List properties typically reference a class derived — directly or indirectly
— from which superclass?
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 21
Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15
SmartShapes? (Excluding Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and
Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when
debugging the application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to
validate the properties displayed on the user interface?
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available
to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment?
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
When a section is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must be
opened and saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property
should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value.
On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field
be set?
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition (referencing a Decision Tree rule)
D. Other Condition (referencing a When Condition rule) E. Always
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
When following PRPC best practices, which artifact is completed prior to running
the Application Accelerator?
A. Enterprise Data Model
B. Application Profile
C. Class Structure Diagram
D. User Interface Design Review
Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which standard Harness rule is displayed as read-only and does not allow user
input?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
Which two statements are true about Harnesses and Sections? (Choose two.)
A. Each Harness contains the same three standard Section rules
B. Sections may contain multiple Harnesses
C. Harnesses and the sections they contain do not need to be built in the same
class
D. Harnesses may contain multiple Sections
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following standard presentation formats are available for screen
flow screens? (Choose three.)
A. Screen with breadcrumb controls at the bottom
B. An interactive flow diagram with linked assignments
C. Tabbed screen display
D. Tree Navigation
200-155 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 30
Buttons can be configured on Harnesses that run custom Activities.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 31
A Section rule can be embedded in another Section rule.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following standard harness rules is typically referenced in the
Process tab of the Flow rule?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following standard Section rules is contained in the New and
Perform harnesses and displays general work object fields?
A. Core
B. CoreSummary
C. GeneralSummary
D. GeneralHeader
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 34
A Local Action can be presented in a pop-up modal window.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
When using the Application Document wizard, .
A. The default Pega template must be used to preserve compliance
B. The default Pega template can be customized in Word
C. There is no Word template; the document is auto-created in PRPC
D. The default Pega template is divided into customizable and non-customizable sections
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single row in a Decision Table
rule using multiple “OR” conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property
values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule?
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.1
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 732

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are
true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is IPsec transport mode appropriate ? (Choose two)
A. When both hosts are behind IPsec peers.
B. When the hosts are transmitting router management traffic.
C. When only one host is behind an IPsec peer.
D. When only IP header encryption is needed.
E. When IPsec peers are the source and the destination of the traffic.
F. When only IP header authentication is needed.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the output aretrue?(Choose two)
400-101 dumps

A. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.
B. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.
C. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP.
D. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP.
E. BFD is active for BGP on RT1
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another.
B. It operates at Layer 3.
C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets
D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram
E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface
GigabitEthernet0/0
A. Only traffic matching access-list streaming
B. No traffic gets set to AF41
C. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming
D. Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which IPv6 first hop security feature blocks traffic sourced form ipv6 address that are outside the prefix
gleaned from router advertised
A. IPv6 source guard
B. IPv6 DHCP guard
C. IPv6 RA guard
D. IPv6 prefix guard
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two characteristics of an loT network are true ? (Choose two)
A. loT networks must be designed for low-powered devices
B. loT network are 100% reliable.
C. The transmission rate in an loT network is consistent.
D. loT networks are bandwidth constrained.
E. loT networks use IS-IS for routing.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Into which two pieces of information does the LISP protocol split the device identity?(Choose two)
A. Enterprise Identifier
B. LISP ID
C. Resource Location
D. Device ID
E. Routing Locator
F. Endpoint Identifier
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which interior gateway protocol is based on open standards, uses a shortest-path first algorithm , provides
native protocols, and operates at the data link layer?
A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?
A. area 0 – area 2-MPLS VPN superbackbone – area 1
B. area 2 – area 0 MPLS VPN backbone – area 1
C. area 1 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 2
D. area I – area 0 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 0 – area 2
E. area 1-MPLS VPN backbone-area 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization?(choose two)
A. Xen
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. OpenStack
E. DevStack
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption?
A. Cisco Type-7
B. Cisco Type-5
C. TKIP
D. MD5
E. Cisco AES
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which kind of ICMPv6 packet is shownin the output?
A. Neighbor advertisement
B. Time exceeded
C. Neighbor soliciation
D. Router advertisement
E. Router discovery
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

When R2 attempted to copy a file the TFTP server, it received this error messagE. When action can you
take to correct the problem?
A. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R2
B. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R1
C. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on R2
D. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on RI
E. Change the access-list configuration on R1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at Rl on interface GiO/0, but the
router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1.
400-101 dumps

Which feature that is configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. UDLC
B. split horizon
C. uRPF
D. spanning tree
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an issue with a blocked switch port. you find this error in the
switch log. Which action should you take first to locate the problem?
A. Execute the show interface command to check FastEthernet 0/1
B. Check the attached switch for a BPDU filter
C. Test the link for unidirectional failures.
D. Check the attached switch for an interface configuration issue.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
400-101 dumps

QUESTION 18
Drag and drop the NAT operations on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

400-101 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the
right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

400-101 exam Correct Answer:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:

400-101 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-101 dumps

400-101 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the main function of VRF-lite?
A. To segreagate multiple routing tables on a single device.
B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes.
C. To allow device to use lables to make layer 2 path decisions.
D. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 36

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QUESTION NO: 1
The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
70-398 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
70-398 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
When a notification isn’t received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
70-398 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of applications
related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which two
of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
70-398 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
70-398 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
The Policy Management solution enables companies to implement a workflow process that will
ensure exceptions to policies are properly documented and reviewed. What is the name of the
application that includes this process?
A. Policies
B. Question Library
C. Control Procedures
D. Exception Requests
70-398 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
The Risk Management solution easily interacts with which other RSA Archer solutions, out of the
box?
A. Enterprise, Policy, Vendor
B. Audit, Compliance, Threat
C. Enterprise, Incident, Vendor
D. Compliance, Enterprise, Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
 The Threat Management solution is primarily used in conjunction with what other RSA Archer
administrative feature?
A. Data Feed Manager
B. Data Import Manager
C. Management Reporting
D. Business Processes Application
70-398 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
In the Vendor Management solution, how is the vendor tier determined?
A. The vendor relationship manager is able to manually type in the vendor tier.
B. The vendor tier is pulled from an external database maintained by a third party.
C. A representative from each vendor company can enter a tier through an external site.
D. The answers to business impact, financial viability, and privacy analyses are combined to
automatically calculate a vendor tier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Within RSA Archer, data is stored in the following nested sequence of items:
A. Solution > Application > Record > Field
B. Workspace > Dashboard > iView > Report
C. Access role > Group > User Account > User
D. User Account > Workspace > Solution > Application
70-398 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
If an administrator wanted to edit a field in an application, which module should she access on the
Administration tab?
A. Integration
B. Access Control
C. Application Builder
D. Management Reporting
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
What is the name of the feature that allows administrators to merge application configuration
changes between instances?
A. Packaging
B. Integration
C. Data Import
D. Data Feed Manager
70-398 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Where would an administrator find licensing information for the RSA Archer system?
A. Preferences page
B. Manage Applications
C. Reports Master Listing
D. Management Reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which one of the following statements about key fields in RSA Archer is true?
A. Key fields must be unique.
B. Any field can be configured to be a key field.
C. Applications can have an unlimited number of key fields.
D. Key fields are displayed as a hyperlink to the record within search results.
70-398 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
How does an administrator configure a field to appear on the layout of a form for end users?
A. He assigns the end user a role that grants Read rights to the field.
B. He ensures the field’s access is configured to be visible to specific end users.
C. He configures an Appearance Theme that includes the field to appear on the layout.
D. He drags the field onto the layout on the Layout page in Manage Applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Events can be used to trigger a number of different layout effects, based on a user’s interaction
with other fields in the application. Which of the following actions CANNOT be triggered by an
Event?
A. Delete a record
B. Generate an email notification
C. Make a field conditionally required
D. Populate a values list with a selected value
70-398 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
When will a calculated field’s value be recalculated?
A. When a report is run
B. When a record is opened
C. When a record is saved, assuming fields affecting the calculation have been edited
D. When a user logs into the system, assuming the user has access to the application housing the
calculation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
When a new questionnaire is created, the administrator can pull questions stored in which of the
following RSA Archer applications to be used in the questionnaire?
A. Findings
B. Question Library
C. Authoritative Sources
D. Manage Questionnaires
70-398 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Users can be granted access to information at what three levels? (Choose three)
A. Form
B. Page
C. Field
D. Record
E. Application
F. Workspace
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 1
You take a EUR deposit on Monday, 13 February. Assuming there are no intervening bank holidays, what
is the one-month maturity date?
A. Monday, 13 March
B. Tuesday, 14 March
C. Wednesday, 15 March
D. Thursday, 16 March
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
A broker:
A. Is an agent who mediates between buyers and sellers, for their mutual financial interest
B. Controls country limits in cooperation with the compliance officer
C. Is responsible for reducing transaction fees
D. Acts as a correspondent bank
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What does “modified following business day convention” mean?
A. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. A convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What does ISDA stand for?
A. International Swaps and Derivatives Association
B. Integrated System Data Association
C. International Swap Derivatives Agreement
D. International Swaps Dealer Association
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is volatility?
A. The difference between the current price of an asset and its previous close
B. A statistical measure of price fluctuations as an annualized percentage
C. The measure of the liquidity of a contract or security
D. The difference between the annual high and low of a security
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which SWIFT message formats would you use for a foreign exchange confirmation and fixed money
market confirmation, respectively?
A. MT 400, MT 950
B. MT 200, MT 100
C. MT 300, MT 950
D. MT 300, MT 320
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
When do you use a SWIFT message type 202?
A. For a foreign exchange confirmation
B. For multiple general financial institution transfers
C. For a general financial institution transfer
D. For a customer transfer
70-774 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In the unexpected event that a public holiday is declared on the date a particular contract matures, what is
the normal market practice?
A. If that day is not the final trading day of the month, all contracts maturing on that day are extended to
the next business day
B. If that day is not the final trading day of the month, all contracts maturing on that day are shortened to
the preceding business day
C. All new maturity dates have to be agreed upon with the counterparties involved
D. Decisions about the maturity dates of trading contracts are made by ACI’s Committee for
Professionalism on a case-by-case basis and must be adhered to
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
How are accounting entries usually generated?
A. They are generated based on a code profile held for each product type on a time event basis.
B. They are generated based on a code profile held for each front office staff member.
C. They are generated based on the nature of instruments (debits = first priority / credits = second
priority).
D. They are generated in the morning at start of business when there is no direct link to other systems.
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is a SWIFT message type 210?
A. A request for financial institution transfer
B. A general financial institution transfer
C. A financial institution transfer for its own account
D. A notice to receive
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is done with counterparties’ confirmations?
A. They are scanned for money laundering activities and afterwards destroyed
B. They are forwarded to the deal capturer to check the completeness of the deal
C. They are matched as soon as possible after receipt
D. They are archived after reception
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of “internal cash reconciliation”?
A. To control the bank’s cash and derivative positions
B. To reconcile and control the cash balance for the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
C. To reconcile and control the cash balance for the central bank
D. Cash forecasting, cash collateral and cash positions control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What information is essential for an interbank FX confirmation?
A. Specification of the applicable law
B. The value date
C. The brokerage cost
D. The name of the person(s) originating the deal
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What is the most frequently used settlement process for securities?
A. Free of settlement payment
B. Cash settlement
C. Same day value settlement
D. Delivery-versus-payment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of payment demands extra diligence and review procedures?
A. Nostro funding payment
B. Third party payment
C. Value spot USD payment
D. Value spot payment for currency equivalents> USD 3,000,000.00
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following best describes TARGET2?
A. The real-time gross settlement (RTGS) system owned and operated by the Eurosystem
B. The system used in Germany for settling high value domestic securities transactions
C. The pan-Europe netting system used for reducing credit risk for derivative transactions
D. The system used by the European Banking Federation to clear cross border Euro payments
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is a settlement date?
A. The date by which the interest payment on an operation must be made
B. The last date by which the minimum reserve amount can be paid to the central bank
C. The date, on which settlement must be made on the contracted amount or the differential amount of an
operation
D. The date a deal is processed
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the main difference between TARGET and TARGET2?
A. Finland did not participate in TARGET but it does participate in TARGET2
B. The cut-off time for TARGET2 is 20:00 (8.00 p.m.) CET, whereas the cut-off time for TARGET was
18:00 (6.00 p.m.) CET
C. TARGET2 runs on a single shared technical platform whereas TARGET did not
D. TARGET2 processes payment orders denominated in EUR as well as USD
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following best describes the main benefit of the RTGS payment system?
A. Final settlement of interbank funds transfers on a continuous, trade by trade basis throughout the day
B. Lower costs through fewer payments passing through nostro accounts
C. Lower costs through less labor intensive methods
D. Reduced market risk due to smaller values of open positions
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A payment is made from Germany to a second Euro zone country. Which international payment system
would normally be used?
A. TARGET2
B. Euro Link System (ELS)
C. Euroclear
D. Clearstream
Correct Answer: A

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